The gravity of the endeavor of systematic theology heightens considerably as the interpreter realizes that his or her digestion of the Scriptures “reveals not only who God is but also what we can expect from him and what he expects from us” (Feinberg). Tozer, then, is right to say that the most significant doctrine before the Church is always that of “God Himself” (I did learn something theologically significant from Intro. to Missions!). All that to say, we must ensure by careful study that our notions of God are as sharp, poignant, and direct as humanly possible. That brings me to the question of God’s impassibility.
Let me open with a passage which I stumbled upon while reading through Jeremiah the prophet. God says in response to
1) The language which Evangelicalism now seems to embrace is at best confusing and at worst damaging—particularly during the reign of Open Theism/Process Theology. Bruce Ware, in an article entitled “An Evangelical Reformulation of the Doctrine of the Immutability of God” (it’s on the ischool website, if you’d like to read it and be angered), went so far as to assert that God is “relationally mutable.” Even Grudem says: “God responds differently to different situations.” I object to propositions like this. In this purely pragmatic criticism, I’m not even calling for Passibilists to jettison the position itself. But surely we can be more linguistically precise than Ware and Grudem have been seen to be.
2) Second, proponents of passibility are inconsistent within their own system. For example, Grudem, Erickson, Carson, and Feinberg all argue against impassibility, yet flee quickly to the very doctrine to escape language of God’s repentance (see Ware’s article for the extensive list). You need a better excuse than saying, like Ware, simply that the Impassibilists are ‘right on this point’. In such a system, determination between metaphorical/literal language is left to theological arbitrarity (‘This doesn’t fit with my philosophy…so I choose option a’ or ‘I choose b’). This double-move smacks of duplicity
I love C. S. Lewis on this point. In making his case for impassibility, he uses the idea of ‘God’s love’ powerfully. “The passion of love is something that happens to us, as ‘getting wet’ happens to a body: and God is exempt from that ‘passion’ in the same way that water is exempt from ‘getting wet’. He cannot be affected with love, because He is love.”
Does God regret decisions which at the outset he deemed ‘good’? Or, is God capable suffering through the enactment of his holy, unstained purpose? Emotional movement is, at its core, ontological variation. Stephen Charnock is right, then, to say: “If God’s essence be changed, he either increaseth or diminisheth.” Knowledge of God is derived analogously; yet an analogy never perfectly correlates with the object for which it stands. If ever this statement was true, then surely it must be so with the One who exceeds or transcends or extends infinitely beyond all cerebral categories. Rather than chafing at the metaphorical language, such a recognition should result in worship to the God who ‘bends backwards’ on behalf of mankind—not only in reducing himself to symbols cast on a page but also in confining himself to common imagery through which readers might come to know him.
8 comments:
A couple of notes...
1) I took a lot of this research from a paper I wrote on the Wrath of God.
2) It seems significant that the Church has historically held to the Impassibilistic position and has only in recent days come to question it's appropriateness.
3) We need to be careful not to push language too far in appropriating proper theologies. We can grant the rampant use of metaphor without challenging the knowability of God.
Wes, I think that the metaphorical language of OT really isn't a problem given, if you take revelation to be progressive.
I would look at Jer 4:19 as closer to #2. Anthropomorphic language is extremely effective in communicating a message not specifically stated. It also gives us something we can relate to and grasp unto to so that we can understand the message better.
What do you think?
For us to understand anything personal (be it corporeal or incorporeal), we must apply anthropomorphic and anthropopathic language.
Argument for self-derived understanding:
1. To understand a personality, we must be able to relate to it.
2. To relate, we must have had a similar experience
3. To understand a personality, we must have had a similar experience
3. (stated negatively) We cannot understand any personality with which we have not had similar experiences
3. (stated negatively and expanded) We cannot understand any personality with which we have not had similar experiences, and we can understand that personality only as far as our experiences overlap.
This is why in fiction stories non-human characters are often given human characteristics (even faces, like the Ents in Tolkien). The degree to which the author wants the character to communicate with the audience is directly proportional to the degree of humanity the author ascribes to it.
To bring this back to God, the only way we can understand God is to relate to God. The only way we can relate to God is to have shared experiences. Thus, we must either 1) state merely God's existence and actions, and make God to us an impersonality, or 2) describe God with humanoid language, and make God to us a personality.
Apparently the Bible writers weren't satisfied with the first option. What's truly amazing to me is that the Bible writers spoke with humanoid language, but spoke of something beyond the language. Myth never did this. Myth spoke of the gods in strongly humanoid language, but the language was literal. The Bible writers use humanoid language to describe God, but use the language like sign posts pointing to reality, instead of the reality itself.
Thus, this leads me to two conclusions:
1. A stronger faith that there is an Author behind the authors
2. All humanoid language about God may be non-literal
This supports your point Wes. If humanoid language is the only possible avenue for human understanding of God's personality, then that's the only language that could be used by humans to communicate God, and the only language (presumably) that God would use to communicate God's personality. Secondly, the language admits to pointing.
Our language is communicative, but it is like a retarded cripple child gropes for his mother in a black room.
mmm, can't edit these.
It is a retarded cripple child groping for his mother in a dark room.
One other thing. You said emotions were ontological variation. Say more about that....
Wes, I am not exactly sure where I land but I would say this. I think all along we have been a lot closer than we think or at least a lot closer than I have been able to articulate. I definitely agree that God is totally impassible. There is no doubt in my mind considering the impassibility of God especially when it comes to the idea of sovereignty. I know that this can at times be used too often but I think in this case we have to see the fact that a God who knows what's coming and is never surprised cannot in any way be a passible God and I strongly believe in the absolute sovereignty of God. I guess what I am trying to think threw is the actual idea of emotion. I understand that for a human being we have emotion and our emotion is a response to something. I also understand that certain descriptions must be used in scripture for us to be able to understand anything about God otherwise we would be left completely in the dark. And this has been much of my meditation when it comes to the whole trinity discussion but anyway that is not what we are talking about. I guess my question is, is there a way to have perfect emotion...in which it is not passible in any way shape or form. Can we ever separate the impassibilty of God discussion from the discussion of whether God has emotion or not. Not that God has emotion that is a cause and effect emotion like ours but somehow is a perfect emotion which we strive for and desire?
1) D.J.: I agree that metaphorical language isn't a problem...we just need to understand what it's doing in the narrative. Also, I think that Passibilists concede my point by not interpreting all of the language as strictly literal. You're saying: "It's emotion, but not the same type as ours." Right...it's a divine concession. Let me know what you think...
2)David: not sure if your asking about the term's semantic or contextual meaning, so I'll give both. a) semantically, I mean that emotion implies progression, which is a change in the very nature of the thing/Thing emoting. b) contextually, I mean what Charnock said, that if God does emote situationally, he is either increasing or decreasing (progress or regress). If this doesn't answer the question or you think I'm using the term inappropriately, let me know. Also, what you said in response to the entry itself was insightful...
3)Jon: we've been close 'all along' on everything but the language and what we've meant by the language (wait...what?). JK. I agree with you. God is totally impassible. However, like I said to D.J., if you're going to say: "God's emotion is altogether different from ours," your saying the emotion of God is metaphorical. The grass is greener and tastier on this side of the fence...come on over :)
Wes I don't think you know what I'm talking about because I don't know what I was talking about. I think I was just trying to say that the emotive language is extremely effective in communicating. I would have to say God is doesn't have emotion. But I don't have a problem with myself thinking about him in terms of emotion simply because I can't fathom his pure essence.
I totally forgot was I was trying to say with that previous comment.
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